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Why should, asks what you think are aspects or potential aspects of the career that would cause a young professional to desire it If this was a conversation as to how to increase the number of people in the field the answer could include aspects that do not currently exist While the aspect could exist in potential, it would have to be real. This has nothing to do with why, but with the use of have to meaning must
The two questions are very different, in the same way as we work and we have to work. =what is the cause of your long face =why are you so sad A 'bare' infinitival clause—that is, an infinitival unmarked with to
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The construction has the sense why do you x? or why would you x?, implying that there is a better alternative
= why would you wait (instead of doing it now)? How/why is consistency maintained by avoiding explicit numerals According to my dictionary (new oxford american dictionary, 2nd ed), one definition of text is written or printed words.numerals are not words Thus, using them in text creates an inconsistency that many writers would like to avoid.
Why do not you.don't contracts the do and not, and even though the shortened words appear next to each other when contracted, the subject of the sentence (in this case, you) must go between the do and not. Have the implicit definitions of these words changed/converged over time Additionally, why does the meaning of “shameful” seem to change depending on the tone of the surrounding text? Why not do it why not to do it whereas it feels incorrect to me (but not to my friend) to use the to in the example in the beginning
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Some advice for clearing this out?
I live in rotherhithe in se london and centuries ago people like samuel pepys and john evelyn and jonathan swift seemed to have pronounced the second th with an f so much so that they wrote it as redriffe. Unlike how, what, who, where, and probably other interrogatives, why does not normally take to before its infinitive I wonder if this is dialectal, or perhaps just individual.
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